Question about the Overall #1 seed/ Play In games

If the overall #1 seed is “supposed” to have the easiest route to through their bracket, why aren’t they playing a 16 vs 16 play-in game opponent?

Wouldn’t that be the easiest opponent because they have to play an extra game?

Also, why are the play in games also 10 vs 10 and not all 16 vs 16?

Isn’t a 10 seed comfortably NOT a bubble school?

Why did they slot it that way?


10 and 11 seed are the bubble schools. anything below that were Auto-qualifier teams typically.

It feels like the first overall tends to get the “stronger” 16 seeds

The abnormally large number of bid thieves pushed the L4I to 11s to 10s

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I still have no idea how the play in games are decided or which regions they go to.

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It is important to consider that all conferences get access with their tournament champions getting in.

So some of these champions are not in the top 68 team.

So as Imago13 mentioned, the play in games are for bubble teams that would normally be ranked in the 40s or 50s. As some of the autobids are in the 100s or 200s Hence the worse autobids get the 16 spots…

For what its worth kenpom has Longwood as the highest rated of the 16’s this year

I suspect the seading committee thinks the 16 seeds that win their play-in games are more dangerous than the higher rated but cold 16 seeds.

Not sure they are right but maybe

Seems to me there are good 15 seeds every year, but the 16 seeds really don’t even belong